Are Jews and Christians saved? (2:62 and 5:69)
Many non-believers like to cite these 2 verses to claim that the Quran teaches that Jews/Christians will be saved:
[Quran 2:62] Indeed, those who believed and those who were Jews or Christians or Sabeans [before Prophet Muhammad] - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - will have their reward with their Lord, and no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve.
[Quran 5:69] Indeed, those who have believed [in Prophet Muhammad] and those [before Him] who were Jews or Sabeans or Christians - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve.
Note, the brackets "[ ]" are the author's understanding of the verse, not exactly what it says. We will discuss exactly what they say below. Indeed those verses are in the past tense (they use perfect/past tense verbs).
However, we will see that when taking a sophisticated and deep approach to understanding those verses, we'll see that those verses are referring to the Jews/Christians before the Prophet Muhammad.
Let's start with 2:62. If you notice the context of Quran 2:62 (look at the verses before and the verses after), you'll notice already this verse is talking about past peoples. Additionally, the verbs used in Quran 2:62 are in the past tense (perfect verbs). "Those who believed (past tense), and those who became (past tense) Jews/Christians/Sabeans...and did (past tense) righteous deeds". Additionally, it is commonly stated that "those who believed" is referring to those contemporaneous with the prophet, however, this verse does not make this clear. "Those who believed" could be referring to those of the past--such as Adam, Noah, Abraham and nations that were given the messages. Those were believers who existed long before Jews even existed. And this verse could be talking about all the believers of the past. So as we see, this verse does not conclusively assert that the Jews/Christians after the Quran is revealed will be saved. And in the face of inconclusive verses, we refer to conclusive verses which directly answer our questions (we will mention them below).
Moving on to 5:69. The verse before is commanding the people of the book (Jews/Christians) to uphold the Torah, Gospel AND Quran and it informs them that what Allah additionally reveals to them (ie the Quran) will increase them in transgression and disbelief--and if they don't believe in the Quran, then they are disbelievers. Then the next verse can be understood as answering the question "what about the previous Jews/Christians, are they going to hell?". And so this verse is saying those who believed (past tense) and who became (past tense) Jews/Christians before the Quran was revealed were righteous, however, once the Quran was revealed and they reject it, then they become disbelievers as 5:68 explicitly says. So 5:69 can be understood as referencing previous believers as well. In fact, the very next verse (5:70) is talking about the children of Israel and what happened to them in the past, which is in line with the understanding that 5:69 is talking about the previous Jews/Christians.
Another thing that adds to to complexity and demonstrates the inconclusiveness of those verses is the Quranic phrase "and who did righteous deeds". Not following the Quran is not a righteous deed. Quran 5:68 and 4:47 for example commands them to follow the Quran. So the modern Christians/Jews who follow the Quran (do righteous deeds) (convert to Islam) are the only ones who will be saved. Additionally, those whom the Quran had been revealed must follow it, but the Christians/Jews and other believers of the past did not have the Quran (the Quran wasn't revealed then--so how could they follow it) who did exactly what they were supposed to do in the Torah/Injeel--they will be saved.
Now, one question you may ask is, why would the Quran mislead like that? We've dealt with this topic at length throughout this website (see: Why is the Quran Vague, Why is there no proof of God, Corruption of the Bible in the Quran). Basically the Quran makes it easy/facilitates those who seek an interpretation they desire to get what they want through a peripheral analysis. However, through deep analysis, we learn such verses are inconclusive and thus we refer to those that are conclusive or we say it is not specified exactly what this means. So the Quran wants those Jews/Christians whose hearts are perversity to easily find reason to reject Islam and feel secure about their religions, and they will take these verses out of context and believe the Quran teaches Jews/Christians will be saved, and they will take that peripheral understanding and refuse to do deep level analysis to recognize this verse is inconclusive as to whether it is talking about Jews/Christians after the Quran was revealed or before the Quran was revealed. As such we refer to conclusive verses which inform us that the Jews/Christians are to follow the Quran.
[Quran 5:68] Say, "O People of the Scripture, you are [standing] on nothing until you uphold [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord." And that which has been revealed to you from your Lord will surely increase many of them in transgression and disbelief. So do not grieve over the disbelieving people.
[Quran 4:47] O you who were given the Scripture, believe in what We have sent down [to Muhammad], confirming that which is with you, before We obliterate faces and turn them toward their backs or curse them as We cursed the sabbath-breakers. And ever is the decree of Allah accomplished.
However, we don't need those two verses or others to demonstrate this. It simply is the case that 2:62 and 5:69 do not conclusively establish that Jews/Christians who do not accept the Quran and do not abide by it will be saved. They are in the past tense and as such could be referencing those of the past before the Quran was revealed, thus, contrary to the non-believer's claims, these verses are inconclusive.
[Quran 2:62] Indeed, those who believed and those who were Jews or Christians or Sabeans [before Prophet Muhammad] - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - will have their reward with their Lord, and no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve.
[Quran 5:69] Indeed, those who have believed [in Prophet Muhammad] and those [before Him] who were Jews or Sabeans or Christians - those [among them] who believed in Allah and the Last Day and did righteousness - no fear will there be concerning them, nor will they grieve.
Note, the brackets "[ ]" are the author's understanding of the verse, not exactly what it says. We will discuss exactly what they say below. Indeed those verses are in the past tense (they use perfect/past tense verbs).
However, we will see that when taking a sophisticated and deep approach to understanding those verses, we'll see that those verses are referring to the Jews/Christians before the Prophet Muhammad.
Let's start with 2:62. If you notice the context of Quran 2:62 (look at the verses before and the verses after), you'll notice already this verse is talking about past peoples. Additionally, the verbs used in Quran 2:62 are in the past tense (perfect verbs). "Those who believed (past tense), and those who became (past tense) Jews/Christians/Sabeans...and did (past tense) righteous deeds". Additionally, it is commonly stated that "those who believed" is referring to those contemporaneous with the prophet, however, this verse does not make this clear. "Those who believed" could be referring to those of the past--such as Adam, Noah, Abraham and nations that were given the messages. Those were believers who existed long before Jews even existed. And this verse could be talking about all the believers of the past. So as we see, this verse does not conclusively assert that the Jews/Christians after the Quran is revealed will be saved. And in the face of inconclusive verses, we refer to conclusive verses which directly answer our questions (we will mention them below).
Moving on to 5:69. The verse before is commanding the people of the book (Jews/Christians) to uphold the Torah, Gospel AND Quran and it informs them that what Allah additionally reveals to them (ie the Quran) will increase them in transgression and disbelief--and if they don't believe in the Quran, then they are disbelievers. Then the next verse can be understood as answering the question "what about the previous Jews/Christians, are they going to hell?". And so this verse is saying those who believed (past tense) and who became (past tense) Jews/Christians before the Quran was revealed were righteous, however, once the Quran was revealed and they reject it, then they become disbelievers as 5:68 explicitly says. So 5:69 can be understood as referencing previous believers as well. In fact, the very next verse (5:70) is talking about the children of Israel and what happened to them in the past, which is in line with the understanding that 5:69 is talking about the previous Jews/Christians.
Another thing that adds to to complexity and demonstrates the inconclusiveness of those verses is the Quranic phrase "and who did righteous deeds". Not following the Quran is not a righteous deed. Quran 5:68 and 4:47 for example commands them to follow the Quran. So the modern Christians/Jews who follow the Quran (do righteous deeds) (convert to Islam) are the only ones who will be saved. Additionally, those whom the Quran had been revealed must follow it, but the Christians/Jews and other believers of the past did not have the Quran (the Quran wasn't revealed then--so how could they follow it) who did exactly what they were supposed to do in the Torah/Injeel--they will be saved.
Now, one question you may ask is, why would the Quran mislead like that? We've dealt with this topic at length throughout this website (see: Why is the Quran Vague, Why is there no proof of God, Corruption of the Bible in the Quran). Basically the Quran makes it easy/facilitates those who seek an interpretation they desire to get what they want through a peripheral analysis. However, through deep analysis, we learn such verses are inconclusive and thus we refer to those that are conclusive or we say it is not specified exactly what this means. So the Quran wants those Jews/Christians whose hearts are perversity to easily find reason to reject Islam and feel secure about their religions, and they will take these verses out of context and believe the Quran teaches Jews/Christians will be saved, and they will take that peripheral understanding and refuse to do deep level analysis to recognize this verse is inconclusive as to whether it is talking about Jews/Christians after the Quran was revealed or before the Quran was revealed. As such we refer to conclusive verses which inform us that the Jews/Christians are to follow the Quran.
[Quran 5:68] Say, "O People of the Scripture, you are [standing] on nothing until you uphold [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord." And that which has been revealed to you from your Lord will surely increase many of them in transgression and disbelief. So do not grieve over the disbelieving people.
[Quran 4:47] O you who were given the Scripture, believe in what We have sent down [to Muhammad], confirming that which is with you, before We obliterate faces and turn them toward their backs or curse them as We cursed the sabbath-breakers. And ever is the decree of Allah accomplished.
However, we don't need those two verses or others to demonstrate this. It simply is the case that 2:62 and 5:69 do not conclusively establish that Jews/Christians who do not accept the Quran and do not abide by it will be saved. They are in the past tense and as such could be referencing those of the past before the Quran was revealed, thus, contrary to the non-believer's claims, these verses are inconclusive.
